Hi. In Matthew 19:9, the guilty party commits adultery if he “marries” someone else. This, of course, could only be possible while the original marriage covenant is still intact. My question is: Since one of the parties still is actually married (though, unknowingly), wouldn’t the one who hasn’t married before be able to marry when they find out the truth and seperate, since they weren’t bound by a genuine marriage law (Romans 7:1-3)? Also, does their “divorce” have to be through the state system as well? Couldn’t they just seperate? Thank You I guess there are 2 questions here (sorry). Anthony Grigsby
I have a first cousin who married a man and had children by him, only to learn later that he was already and still married to another woman. Consequently, she was not really married to the man that she thought was her husband and who was the father of her children. Neither the state (once bigamy was known) nor God recognized that supposed marriage as valid. However, the question posed represents a circumstance where the state recognizes a supposed marriage as valid, but God does not recognize the marriage as valid. In order to avoid the charge of bigamy being leveled against one by the state, a divorce according to civil law (comparable to the civil ceremony officiating the supposed marriage) must precede contracting a marriage in the future in accordance both with civil and divine law. Mankind is obligated to abide by the law of the land in which he lives (Romans 13:1-7) except where the law of the land and God’s law conflict (Acts 5:29).
