I enjoy your web page. I was searching for an article on deacons, found it, but it didn’t answer my question which is, is a divorced man, who has a scriptural divorce and is remarried, able to be a deacon? The question is an issue; some say yes, some say the scriptures aren’t specific about this. One qualification, the husband of one wife. Would appreciate your thoughts and scripture on this. Thank you for your time, a sister in Christ, Zella Bluthardt
Commentators are not unanimous as to whether the biblical phrase “husband of one wife” prohibits polygamy or a second marriage for those who would be elders (1 Timothy 3:2) or deacons (1 Timothy 3:12). For instance, Albert Barnes and Adam Clarke view the phrase as pertaining to polygamy, not biblically lawful second marriages.
(1) It is the most obvious meaning of the language, and it would doubtless be thus understood by those to whom it was addressed. At a time when polygamy was not uncommon, to say that a man should “have but one wife” would be naturally understood as prohibiting polygamy. (2) The marriage of a second wife, after the death of the first, is nowhere spoken of in the Scriptures as wrong. The marriage of a widow to a second husband is expressely declared to be proper (1 Cor 7:39); and it is not unfair to infer from that permission that it is equally lawful and proper for man to marry the second time. But if it is lawful for any man it is right for a minister [bishop, ler] of the gospel. No reason can be assigned against such marriages in his case, which would not be equally valid in any other. (“1 Tim 3:2,” Barnes’ Notes, Electronic Database. Copyright (c) 1997 by Biblesoft)
He must be the husband of one wife. He should be a married man, but he should be no polygamist; and have only one wife, i.e. one at a time. It does not mean that, if he has been married, and his wife die, he should never marry another. (“1 Tim 3:2,” Adam Clarke’s Commentary, Electronic Database. Copyright (c) 1996 by Biblesoft)
Robertson, likewise, concludes that the prohibition pertains to polygamy and that there is no doubt that this is all that the verse conveys. “One at a time, clearly.” (“1 Tim 3:2,” Robertson’s Word Pictures in the New Testament, Electronic Database. Copyright (c) 1997 by Biblesoft & Robertson’s Word Pictures in the New Testament. Copyright (c) 1985 by Broadman Press)
However, the Jamieson, Fausset, and Brown Commentary says, “As in 1 Tim 5:9 ‘wife of one man’ implies a woman married but once, so ‘husband of one wife’ must mean the same.” Matthew Henry wrote that both polygamy and remarriage disqualified such candidates. (“1 Tim 3:1-7,” Matthew Henry’s Commentary on the Whole Bible: New Modern Edition, Electronic Database. Copyright (c) 1991 by Hendrickson Publishers, Inc.) Vincent concludes that the primary reference was to second marriages (e.g., following divorce or death). (“1 Tim 3:2,” Vincent’s Word Studies in the New Testament, Electronic Database. Copyright (c) 1997 by Biblesoft)
The Greek word for “one” in both 1 Timothy 3:2 and 3:12 differs from the Greek word for “one” in 1 Timothy 5:9. The latter’s definition includes the idea of “only” whereas the former’s definition does not include the idea of “only.” It occurs to me that for the qualifications for elders and deacons to not address polygamy would have been an oversight in an era when polygamy was common. The apparent reference in the simple, unadorned phrase does not pertain to second, otherwise biblically lawful marriages but to polygamous marriages.
It is admirable that brethren carefully endeavor to apply Scripture. However, we also must cautiously guard against making applications that go beyond what the Bible teaches, even with the best of intentions.
